Suggested Answers if not directly in lecture notes Why are linear probability models not homoscedastic? Because the error term is equal to y – yhat, or p-phat. P-hat depends on x, var phat also depends on x. Therefore, in a
Suggested Answers if not directly in lecture notes Why are linear probability models not homoscedastic? Because the error term is equal to y – yhat, or p-phat. P-hat depends on x, var phat also depends on x. Therefore, in a